English Language & Usage Asked on September 5, 2021
I come across the following piece and don’t understand the last sentence in the light of the first one.
This suggests that the resulting proportion of true pedophiles among persons with a homosexual erotic development is greater than that in persons who develop heterosexually. This, of course, would not indicate that androphilic males have a greater propensity to offend against children.
More precisely, I don’t understand who the ‘androphilic males’ are not included among the ‘persons with a homosexual erotic development’ and, as a consequence, don’t understand what that piece means.
So, from a strictly language perspective, can anybody explain why “androphilic males” would not be included among ‘persons with a homosexual erotic development’?
Reference → http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/1556756
Androphilic means "man-loving", so a person who likes men. An androphilic male is by definition an homosexual man.
I don't see what androphilia per se has to do with homosexuality, though, since homosexual women do not like men. The abstract states the ratio of gynephiles [sic] to androphiles among the general population is approximately 20:1, which is patently wrong: about the same number of people like men as like women. The abstract is confused; based on context, it appears they mean the ratio of gynaecophilic men to androphilic men.
The final sentence of your quotation is meant to indicate that, even though they suspect that the proportion of paedophiles among homosexual men is greater than that among heterosexual men, they do not mean to suggest that homosexual men actually commit sexual acts on children more frequently than heterosexual men, proportionally. (So they seem to suggest that it is possible that those homosexual paedophilic men act on their paedophilic desires less frequently than heterosexual paedophilic men, proportionally.)
Answered by Cerberus_Reinstate_Monica on September 5, 2021
I think that it's the other way round: 'androphilic males' includes 'persons with a homosexual erotic development', and also other people - sorry, persons. Ergo, the fact that active homosexuals are more likely to be sex offenders does not mean that all homosexuals are more likely to be so.
The insistence on not offending any pressure group has led to a point where it is difficult to follow the grammar, almost impossible to follow the logic, and entirely impossible to follow the medical argument. This may not be seen by the writer as a bad thing.
Answered by Tim Lymington on September 5, 2021
This suggests that the resulting proportion of true pedophiles among persons with a homosexual erotic development is greater than that in persons who develop heterosexually. This, of course, would not indicate that androphilic males have a greater propensity to offend against children.
A strict translation leaving politics out of it:
This suggests that true pedophiles are more common among homosexuals than heterosexuals, but does not mean that homosexuals are more likely to commit crimes against children.
This is because child abuse is often committed by heterosexuals as a crime of opportunity/other, rather than an erotic orientation towards children.
Answered by anongoodnurse on September 5, 2021
Short answer: Yes, androphilic or "man-loving" males are persons with homosexual or "same-sex" erotic development. In fact in the first sentence of this article, Freund and Wilson define androphilia as "an erotic preference for physically mature males." But the groups are not synonymous.
NB: This study was published in 1992, both scientific and popular usage has changed in the last 20 years. In this case, "homosexual" doesn't mean what we now call "Gay" but is being used in the older, strict sense to mean "same-sex" (e.g., either male pedophile and boy victim or female pedophile and girl victim). For what most people would now consider "Gay" or the CDC would refer to as "MSM," this article uses androphilic instead.
This suggests that the resulting proportion of true pedophiles
defined in the study as men who have been convicted of sexual crimes against children and who get measurable erections when shown pictures of prepubescent girls or boys
among persons with a homosexual erotic development
men who have a history of sexual attraction toward, or involvement with, men or boys
is greater than that in persons who develop heterosexually.
men who have a history of sexual attraction toward, or involvement with, women or girls
This, of course, would not indicate that androphilic males
men who are sexually attracted to other grown men
have a greater propensity to offend against children.
To paraphrase, this early study suggests that compared to the percentages of straight and gay men, a higher than expected proportion of convicted child molesters were sexually attracted to, or involved with, males than females; however, this doesn't mean that gay men (being attracted to men) are more likely to molest kids.
Answered by Gossar on September 5, 2021
From Wikipedia
'Use of terms androphilia and gynephilia (sic) was proposed and popularized by psychologist Ron Langevin in the 1980s.
Psychologist Stephen T. Wegener writes, "Langevin makes several concrete suggestions regarding the language used to describe sexual anomalies. For example, he proposes the terms gynephilic and androphilic to indicate the type of partner preferred regardless of an individual's gender identity or dress. Those who are writing and researching in this area would do well to adopt his clear and concise vocabulary.
... Sexologist Milton Diamond,( who prefers the correctly formed term gynecophilia) , writes, "The terms heterosexual, homosexual, and bisexual are better used as adjectives, not nouns, and are better applied to behaviors, not people.
Diamond has encouraged - using the terms androphilic, gynecophilic, and ambiphilic to describe the sexual-erotic partners one prefers (andro = male, gyneco – female, ambi = both, philic = to love)- . Such terms eliminate the need to specify the subject and focus instead on the desired partner. This usage is particularly advantageous when discussing the partners of transsexual or intersexed individuals. These newer terms also do not carry the social weight of the former ones."'
Answered by ARi on September 5, 2021
The answer to the actual question is yes, androphilic males are persons with a homosexual erotic development.
There is nothing in the passage to suggest that androphilic males are not included among the persons with a homosexual erotic development… the two groups are simply mentioned from different perspectives.
The set of (presumably all) persons with homosexual erotic development is clearly not limited to androphilic males - particularly not in a passage like that. It presumably includes gynephilic females and from the information given, there is no reason to suppose that either set does or does not include ‘true pedophiles’. There isn’t enough information to indicate whether androphilic males have a greater propensity to offend against children. Presumably children do have a greater likelihood of being offended against by those guys, and those aren't corollary ideas.
Answered by Robbie Goodwin on September 5, 2021
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