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Any difference in nuance between “for easing restrictions” and “for easing of restrictions”?

English Language & Usage Asked on November 26, 2020

These days, we often see news headlines like the below examples, and I wonder if there is any difference in nuance between “for easing restrictions” and “for easing of restrictions”. Can anyone help me with this question, please.

Greek government unveils plan for easing restrictions. https://knews.kathimerini.com.cy/en/news/greek-government-unveils-plan-for-easing-restrictions

Koike unveils road map for easing of restrictions in Tokyo https://japantoday.com/category/national/Koike-unveils-road-map-for-easing-of-restrictions-in-Tokyo

One Answer

"Verbal nouns are not the same as gerunds (another type of noun formed from a verb). A gerund is a noun that, having derived from a verb, retains a few verb-like properties. For example, a gerund can be modified by an adverb and can take a direct object."

Source : https://www.grammar-monster.com/glossary/verbal_nouns.htm

[1] In the expression, "for easing restrictions", 'easing' is a gerund. It's used like a noun as the complement of a preposition 'for' , and it also takes a direct object 'restrictions' like a verb.

[2] In the expression, "for easing of restrictions", 'easing' is a verbal noun having no verb-like properties.

[Here the noun 'restrictions' is the complement of the preposition 'of'; and the verbal noun 'easing' serves as the complement of the preposition 'for'.]

Answered by Sandip Kumar Mandal on November 26, 2020

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