English Language & Usage Asked on January 12, 2021
Since around the year 2000, confirmed by Ngrams, the common phrase "I felt (dread etc) in the pit of my stomach" has become somewhat corrupted to "I had (or felt) a pit in my stomach". I’ve seen it several times recently in internet posts and popular fiction.
I doubt there’s a ‘patient zero’ to be found, but I’m curious what might explain why this has become increasingly popular, when before 2000 it was virtually non-existent.
I hope this isn’t seen as opinion-based — I’m looking for a scholarly, or at least informed, reason why this might have arisen.
"Pit in my stomach" is still controversial, and is considered by some to be an error, including Professor Paul Brians, of Washington State University, who has included it in his book "Common Errors in English Usage", alongside such gems as "ad nauseum", and "along the same vein". Mark Liberman, writing on Language Log, traces it as far back as 1980, and calls it an eggcorn.
Correct answer by Michael Harvey on January 12, 2021
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