Economics Asked by asd7 on April 25, 2021
I am trying to solve the following question:
Let $h geq 0$ represent a negative externality of a firm’s production on one (representative) consumer. The consumer has a quasi-linear utility function and attaches a utility of $phi(h) = -2h^2$ to the externality. The firm’s profit function is $pi(h)=120-2(h-10)^2 $. Suppose the consumer has the property right concerning $h$ and can sell the right to produce a quantity $h$ at some price $P$. The consumer’s utility function from some combination $(h,P)$ is $u(h,P)= phi(h) + P$. The firm’s profit function is $Pi(h,P)=pi(h)-P$.
Edit: Approach using the hint from Herr K.
When we set both $lambda$ equal to each other we get $1=frac{-4h+40}{4h} rightarrow h=5$. Plugging this into $frac{partialmathcal{L}}{partial lambda}$ we get $-2(5)^2+P=0 rightarrow 50=P$
Thus $h_p^f = 5$ and $P^f= 50$
$$ Lagrangian = objective function + constraint $$
$$mathcal{L}(h,P,lambda) = phi(h)+P + lambda(Pi(h,P))$$
$$mathcal{L}(h,P,lambda) = -2h^2+P + lambda(pi(h) – P)$$
$$mathcal{L}(h,P,lambda) = -2h^2+P + lambda(120-2(h-10)^2 – P)$$
$$frac{partialmathcal{L}}{partial h} = -4h -4lambda(h-10) = 0 rightarrow lambda = -frac{h}{h-10}$$
$$frac{partialmathcal{L}}{partial P} = 1 -lambda = 0 rightarrow lambda = 1$$
$$frac{partialmathcal{L}}{partial lambda} = 120-2(h-10)^2 – P = 0$$
When we set both $lambda$ equal to each other we get $1=frac{h}{h-10} rightarrow 2h=5$. Plugging this into $frac{partialmathcal{L}}{partial lambda}$ we get $120-2((5)-10)^2 – P=0 rightarrow 70=P$
Thus $h_p^c = 5$ and $P^c= 70$
Your steps look correct. There is one small typo in the first $frac{partial mathcal L}{partial h}$: the term $-4h(h-10)$ should have been $-4(h-10)$.
The results also look reasonable: Regardless of who makes the offer, the Pareto optimal level of $h$ is produced. Given how the bargaining procedures are structured, whoever gets to make the offer gets to keep the surplus of $20$.
P.S. There is an issue in part 2 of the question. It says: "If the firm rejects the offer it cannot produce so the firm's profit is 0." This statement is a contradiction. If the firm cannot produce ($h=0$), then profit would be $-80<0$; if its profit is $0$, then it must produce some positive amount of $h$. But this lack of rigor is on whoever wrote the question, not you.
Correct answer by Herr K. on April 25, 2021
Given that you already know the welfare maximizing level $h=5$ from your previous question, another approach would be to just consider that any optimal take-it-or-leave-it offer can be divided into two steps: First, maximize total surplus by setting $h=5$. Second, extract all surplus by maximizing the price subject to the other's participation constraint. The latter translates to setting utility or profit, respectively, to zero. The optimal price offer then follows immediately.
Answered by VARulle on April 25, 2021
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