Economics Asked by dreamoki on July 7, 2021
Theoretically speaking, if all the Earth’s inhabitants were to save money and invest, is it possible for everybody to get, let’s say, a 4% yearly return for everyone?
Is the economy a zero sum game (where if someone gains, others lose) or not?
Yes, it's possible, as long as the money is invested in ways that increase production by 4%. The economy is certainly not a zero sum game -- if it was, then it couldn't grow.
Correct answer by Mike Scott on July 7, 2021
Certainly the economy is not a "zero sum game" (whatever that means). There has historically been a positive aggregate net return on capital investment - there doesn't have to be a loser for every winner.
That said, economists generally believe that as the stock of aggregate savings increases, the return will go down; this is a consequence of diminishing returns to capital. Hence it's not possible for everyone to save an unlimited amount at 4%.
To be a little more concrete, economists often use a constant-returns-to-scale production function $F(K,L)$, taking capital $K$ and labor $L$ as inputs, as a first-pass way of thinking about the world. In this simple model, net aggregate savings equal capital $K$. Holding $L$ constant, the extent to which more $K$ will push down the net return to capital $r=F_K-delta$ (where $F_K$ is the marginal product of capital and $delta$ is the depreciation rate) depends on the elasticity of substitution of the function $F$.
With a high elasticity of substitution, $K$ can increase substantially without $r$ falling very much, as the economy continues to find productive applications for capital despite its relative abundance; with a low elasticity of substitution, a rise in $K$ can result in a large drop in $r$.
Example. A common form for $F$ is Cobb-Douglas, which corresponds to a constant elasticity of substitution of 1. If the gross capital share of production is $0.35$, then we write $F(K,L) = K^{0.35} L^{0.65}$. The marginal product of capital here is $F_K(K,L) = 0.35 cdot (K/L)^{-0.65}$, implying that the elasticity of $F_K$ with respect to $K$ is -0.65.
Now, if we suppose that initially $r=0.04$ and $delta=0.06$, then the elasticity of $r=F_K-delta$ with respect to $K$ is $-0.65cdot (0.1/0.04)=-1.625$. This means that if we increase capital $K$ by 10%, the net return $r$ will decrease by approximately 16.25%, or $4times .1625 = .65$ percentage points, from 4% to 3.35%. This is a pretty substantial decrease!
Indeed, since $1.625 > 1$, in this case net capital income $rK$ to capital decreases as $K$ goes up; remarkably enough, if savers accumulate more, they earn less, as the decline in the net return per unit of capital overwhelms the increase in capital.
Answered by nominally rigid on July 7, 2021
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