Economics Asked by Snowrabbit on July 20, 2021
I have been looking at auction theory and in the book Auction Theory by Krishna, there is one (seemingly simple) inequality that I just cannot follow.
Context: given a private valuation $x$, the optimal bidding strategy has been found $beta(x)$. Now, the author wants to show that behaving and bidding as if you were of type $z$, $beta(z)$ does not increase profits.
Then, calculating the difference between the profit in the optimum and the profit if you would behave as if you were of type $z$ leads to the following inequality.
$G(x)$ being a probability distriubtion:
$$pi(beta(x),x) – pi( beta(z),x) = G(z)(z-x) – int_x^zG(y)dy geq 0$$
The profit functions were calculated from a first-price auction in case it helps anyone.
My question is why the inequality holds. Why is $G(z)(z-x) – int_x^zG(y)dy$ larger than 0?
I hope you can help me 🙂
$$ G(z) (z-x) = int_x^z G(z) dy $$ and since $G$ is increasing on $[x,z]$, the right hand side is larger than $int_x^z G(y) dy$.
Correct answer by Giskard on July 20, 2021
Although there already is an accepted answer, there is another way to see the global optimality - or rather the same way with a different formulation.
By construction, $$frac{partial pi}{partial b}(b,x) = - G((beta)^{-1}(b)) + (x-b) frac{G'((beta)^{-1}(b))}{(beta)'((beta)^{-1}(b))}Bigg{|}_{b=beta(x)}= 0,$$ where $frac{partial pi}{partial b}(b,x)$ is increasing in $x$.
Now consider some bid $widehat b<beta(x)$. By continuity of $beta$, there is a type $widehat x<x$ such that $beta(widehat x)=widehat b$. Hence, because $widehat x<x$, $$frac{partial Pi}{partial b}(widehat b,x) geq frac{partial Pi}{partial b}(widehat b, widehat x) = frac{partial Pi}{partial b} (beta(widehat x),widehat x) = 0. $$ Thus, the expected utility $Pi( b,x)$ is increasing in $b$ for all $ b<beta(x)$. Analogously, $Pi(b,x)$ is decreasing for all $widehat b'>beta(x)$.
Answered by Bayesian on July 20, 2021
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