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Why naive bayes is "naive"

Data Science Asked on September 5, 2021

Some articles say that naive Bayes is naive because of "independence of attributes". Whereas others say "independence of attributes within a class". Can anybody please clear this confusion?
Thanks

One Answer

Naive Bayes doesn't assume independence of attributes ... It assumes conditional independence (or what you call independence within a class). This allows us to write the likelihood in the bayes rule P(X | Y) as the product of all P(Xi | Y), where X = (X1, ... Xi, ... Xn) and n is the number of attributes.

Correct answer by Samyer on September 5, 2021

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