Cross Validated Asked on December 18, 2021
I am testing for cointegration using the function ca.jo
from the packeg ‘urca’ in R. I am struggling to understand the output.
According to my knowledge, the $H_0colon r=0$ means that there is zero cointegration relationship, and $H_acolon rleqslant1$ is that there is one cointegration relationship. Is that correct?
If this is correct, why is it then, that the $H_0$ cannot be rejected on a 1 pct confidence level but it can be rejected on a 10 pct level? I thought it should be easier to reject on a 10 pct level, than on a 1pct level. There is something I don’t seem to understand here.
Any help is appreciated!
I’ve added some output underneath:
######################
# Johansen-Procedure #
######################
Test type: trace statistic , with linear trend
Eigenvalues (lambda):
[1] 0.0087319555 0.0003334647
Values of teststatistic and critical values of test:
test 10pct 5pct 1pct
r <= 1 | 0.69 6.50 8.18 11.65
r = 0 | 18.70 15.66 17.95 23.52
Eigenvectors, normalised to first column:
(These are the cointegration relations)
EUR.3M.l1 EUR.1Y.l1
EUR.3M.l1 1.0000000 1.000000
EUR.1Y.l1 -0.8739526 -1.128037
Weights W:
(This is the loading matrix)
EUR.3M.l1 EUR.1Y.l1
EUR.3M.d -0.003430251 0.0001479930
EUR.1Y.d -0.001938101 0.0007150807
It is important to note that the $1%$ and $10%$ confidence levels you mention are significance levels, $alpha$, not confidence levels. Confidence level and $alpha$ are inversely related.
At $alpha=0.1$, you accept that $10%$ of the time when the null is true, you will reject. When $alpha=0.01$, you only allow that to happen $1%$ of the time. The latter requires stronger evidence to be able to reject.
Their corresponding confidence levels are $90$ and $99$, respectively. It is easier to get $90%$ confidence than $99%$ confidence, which is consistent with your results.
Answered by Dave on December 18, 2021
According to my knowledge, the H_0: r=0 means that there is zero cointegration relationship, and H_a: r<=1 is that there is one cointegration relationship. Is that correct?
Yes, this is correct.
If this is correct, why is it then, that the H_0 cannot be rejected on a 1pct confidence level but it can be rejected on a 10 pct level? I thought it should be easier to reject on a 10 pct level, than on a 1 pct level.
There is nothing wrong here (except that 1% is the significance level rather than confidence level). The test statistic is less extreme than the 1% critical value but more extreme than the 10% critical value, so you reject at 10% but not at 1%, exactly as expected.
Answered by Richard Hardy on December 18, 2021
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