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Can I use coefficients of one set of regressions as dependent variable in a new regression?

Cross Validated Asked by Jeremy on January 7, 2021

Let’s take CAPM model in finance as an example. I have stock prices of $N$ different companies. First, I do regression below and obtain betas of each company $i$.

$$Price=a+beta_i*Index$$

Now I am curious about what company characteristics affect $beta$. Can I then use $beta$s from the first stage as the new dependent variable and regress against other variables? Why I can and why not? Thanks.

One Answer

I would say this is the classical Fama–MacBeth regression, see wiki page for references and a brief explanation:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fama%E2%80%93MacBeth_regression#:~:text=The%20Fama%E2%80%93MacBeth%20regression%20is,across%20time%20(panel%20data).

Answered by Jonas Striaukas on January 7, 2021

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