Why doesn't Faraday's Law include speed of EM wave

If you work in Gaussian units, where the electric and magnetic field appear on the same footing and have the same units, Faraday's law does contain a factor of $1/c$

$nabla times mathbf{E} = -frac{1}{c}frac{partial mathbf{B}} {partial t}$.

In Gaussian units, Ampere's equation takes the form

$nabla times mathbf{B} = frac{4pi}{c}mathbf{J} + frac{1}{c}frac{partial mathbf{E}} {partial t}$,

where there is now single factor of $c$ in the denominator of both terms on the right-hand side. The advantage of Gaussian units is that they emphasize the fact that $mathbf{E}$ and $mathbf{B}$ come together to form the single electromagnetic field (sometimes written $F_{munu}$).

The real difference between Faraday's and Ampere's equations is the lack of a "magnetic monopole current" in Faraday's law. Despite the symmetry that such a term would add to the equations, no compelling experimental evidence for monopoles has ever been found.