Physics Asked on January 16, 2021
BACKGROUND
As far as the Heisenberg uncertainty principle is concerned, my understanding of commuting observables $hat{A}$ and $hat{B}$ is that the measurement outcome $a_i$ does not perturb (or correlate with) the measurement outcome $b_j$ because they $a_i$ and $b_j$ arise from projections onto orthogonal eigenvectors of $hat{A}$ and $hat{B}$, respectively.
QUESTION
What I don’t understand is this: What does it actually mean that $hat{A}$ does not influence (i.e., is independent of) $hat{B}$? If I visualize some measured quantum state $mid psirangle = alpha~hat{a}_i + beta~hat{b}_j$ as, say, a vector in a Bloch-sphere, then measuring $hat{A}$ will collapse $mid psirangle$ onto the eigenvector $hat{a}_i$ (with probability $alpha$). However, won’t any subsequent measurement on $hat{B}$ become completely randomized? No information about $beta$ could then possibly be retrieved. I therefore don’t understand how one can say that $hat{A}$ and $hat{B}$ can be measured "simultaneously".
If two observables commute, $[hat{A},hat{B}]=0$, then this means that you can always find a common set of eigenstates. In the simplest case of the eigenvalue spectra of $hat{A}$ and $hat{B}$ being non-degenerate, then this implies that the eigenstates ${|u_nrangle}$ are the same for both: $$ hat{A}|u_{n}rangle=a_n|u_{n}rangle, hat{B}|u_{n}rangle=b_n|u_{n}rangle. $$
If you start with your initial state written in the basis of eigenstates of $hat{A}$, $|psirangle=alpha|u_irangle+beta|u_jrangle$, then if measuring $hat{A}$ you get $a_i$, your state immediately after the measurement is $|psi^{prime}rangle=|u_irangle$.
If you then want to measure $hat{B}$, you have to write your new state $|psi^{prime}rangle$ in the basis of eigenstates of $hat{B}$. Crucially, this is $|psi^{prime}rangle=|u_irangle$ because as $hat{A}$ and $hat{B}$ commute so they share the same set of eigenstates. So $|psi^{prime}rangle$ is already in an eigenstate of $hat{B}$, and when you measure $hat{B}$ you will get $b_i$ with probability 1. If you did measure $hat{A}$ again you would get $a_i$ again, and so on.
This discussion becomes more subtle when $hat{A}$ and/or $hat{B}$ have a degenerate eigenvalues spectrum, but I think the above is a good starting point to answer your question.
Answered by ProfM on January 16, 2021
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