Physics Asked on May 29, 2021
I’m trying to understand an example of the Doppler effect. Let’s say we have an object moving at $100 dfrac{text{km}}{text{h}}$ ($27.7 dfrac{text{m}}{text{s}}$) and emitting a frequency of $200 text{Hz}$. Now assume the speed of sound is $340 dfrac{text{m}}{text{s}}$. Since we know that frequency is equal to the speed of sound over the wavelength, wouldn’t the wavelength be $dfrac{340 frac{text{m}}{text{s}}}{200 text{Hz}} = dfrac{340 text{m}}{200} = 1.7 text{m}$? I saw it said that the wavelength would be $3.4 text{m}$, but that doesn’t seem right to me…
Not at all, because you completely ignored the Doppler Effect. Since here observer is stationary, sound velocity, being a property of the medium would remain $340 frac{text{m}}{text{s}}$. However, by the time the wave covers the distance of $1$ wavelength, the source has also moved, causing the $mathbf {effective}$ wavelength to become shorter than what would have been had the source been stationary. Mathematically: $$lambda^prime = lambda - vT$$ where $v$ is source velocity and $T$ is time period. This means that: $$f_{text{app}} = frac{c}{c-v} f$$ Here $c$ is sound velocity, and $f$ is original frequency.
Correct answer by Ritam_Dasgupta on May 29, 2021
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