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Torque due to forces acting over a surface area

Physics Asked on February 17, 2021

As a footnote in page-3 of Jaan Kalda’s notes on mechanics, he writes if we have a force acting over an area, then we would find total torque by integrating ‘something’ over the total area. I’m not sure what this ‘something’ is, anyways, he also writes about the effective application point of forces as

$$ d Pi = Pi(vec{r_1} + d vec{r_1} , vec{r_2} + d vec{r_2} …) – Pi(vec{r_1} , vec{r_2} …)$$

This formula is not really transparent to me as to what really the idea behind it is. Could someone explain what is going on here/ redirect me to something which explains this concept?

Edit: Aaah I just realized the formula is not related to the torque thing. I would edit it out but someone answered with that aspect in context.

One Answer

The stament about the effective action point is footnote 8. The equation on the next line with the $Pi$'s is footnote 9 from "fact 8" on the next page. It has nothing to do with the action point!

Incidently his "fact 7" about torque equalling rate of change of angular momentum is not correct in general. This only applies when one is taking moemnts about a point at rest, or about the center of mass, or about a point moving parallel to the centre of mass. It is incorrect in all other circumstances.

I would be careful in relying on theses notes!

Answered by mike stone on February 17, 2021

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