Physics Asked on August 18, 2021
I wanted to find the resonance frequency of a steel ball.
I assume that gradient disappears on the surface of a ball.
I knew that I can find it solving 3D wave equation in spherical coordinates. Due to complexity of calculation, is it possible to reduce it using symmetry to 1D wave equation? Thank you for showing calculation and comment.
In the general case you would need to solve the following eigenvalue problem:
$$(lambda + 2mu)nabla(nablacdotmathbf{u}) - munablatimesnablatimes mathbf{u} = -rhoomega^2 mathbf{u}, ,$$
and, as mentioned above, you could express the solution in terms of spherical harmonics.
Nevertheless, there are solution that have rotational symmetry. For those solutions
$$mathbf{u} = u_r(r) hat{mathbf{e}}_r, ,$$
and, after replacing in the equation above, we get
$$r^{2} frac{d^{2}}{d r^{2}} u_r(r) + 2 r frac{d}{d r} u_r (r) - 2 u_r(r) + r^2frac{rhoomega^{2}}{(lambda + 2mu)} u_r(r)= 0, ,$$
that has as (physically admissible) solution
$$u_r = frac{J_{3/2}left(kappa rright)}{sqrt{r}}, ,$$
with
$$kappa^2 = frac{rhoomega^2}{(lambda + 2mu)}, .$$
To find the values of $omega$ you would need to impose the traction-free boundary conditions and solve for the roots of the determinant.
Correct answer by nicoguaro on August 18, 2021
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