TransWikia.com

Prove conservation law in quantum mechanics

Physics Asked by Thang on August 30, 2020

I major in Math, and I am studying Quantum Mechanics (QM).

I see the conservation law in QM as a mathematical theorem.

Please check if my understanding is right, and help me to prove the theorem?

Background (might be wrong):

Quantum state is described by wave function $Psi (r,t)$, and follows Schrödinger equation:

$$HPsi (r,t)=ihbar frac{partial Psi(r,t)}{partial t} tag{1}$$

An observable $O$ is conserved if there are quantum states $Psi(r,t)$ satisfying:

$$OPsi(r,t) = lambda Psi(r,t) quadtext{ for some } lambda neq 0 text{ and every } t tag{2}$$

Theorem: An observable is conserved if its associated Hermitian operator $O$ commutes with Hamiltonian operator, i.e.: $$[H, O] = 0 tag{3}.$$

Question: How to prove (3) from (1) and (2)?

2 Answers

The most elegant way under my perspective is try to transform (1) to an analogous equation given by the Heisenberg equation, but this can lead to confusion.

In order to keep it simple, let suppose that $H$ and $O$ are not time dependent (in case they were we can, in principle move the time dependence to the states instead of the operators, c.f. Scrödinger picture), therefore

$$ partial_t O = 0quad partial_t H = 0, $$

where $partial_tcdot = frac{partialcdot}{partial t}$. Assume $O$ is an observable, and let $psi(t,vec{r})equivpsi$ be an eigenstate of $O$, i.e. $Opsi = lambdapsi$. Then:

$$ [H,O]psi = HOpsi-OHpsi == H(Opsi)-O(Hpsi) == Hlambdapsi-Oi hbarpartial_tpsi == lambda Hpsi-i hbarpartial_t Opsi == lambda ihbarpartial_tpsi-i hbarpartial_t lambdapsi == ihbarlambda partial_tpsi-i hbarlambdapartial_t psi =0quad blacksquare $$

But as stated in the comments, there are several issueas in this concept: this relations holds only under the statements considered and, although is related to the concept of conserved quantities in QM, must be taken carefully.

Answered by Alejandro Menaya on August 30, 2020

(2) says that if $psi$ is an eigenvector of $hat{O}$ at some time $t=0$, it stays at eigenvector of $hat{O}$ thereafter. For that to be true, $psi$ must also be an eigenvector of $hat{H}$ since, infinitesimally,

$$psi(t+delta t) = psi(t) + delta t frac{partial}{partial t} psi(t).$$

From (1), you know that this means

$$psi(t+delta t) = psi(t) + (delta t) frac{hat{H}}{i hbar} psi(t) $$

and so $hat{H} psi = E psi$. Now you have proven there are simultaneous eigenvectors of $hat{H}$ and $hat{O}$, which is the same as $[hat{H},hat{O}] = 0$

Answered by Bobak Hashemi on August 30, 2020

Add your own answers!

Ask a Question

Get help from others!

© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP