Physics Asked by Juan Pablo Arcila on February 22, 2021
I’m following a proof of Thomson’s theorem but I’m a bit confused when they use a lagrange multiplier to include the charge conservation constraint, could someone explain to me how is this multiplier deducted? I would appreciate it so much.
By the way, I took the image from the paper “A variational proof of Thomson’s theorem,” by
Miguel C.N. Fiolhais a,b,c,∗, Hanno Essén d, Tomé M. Gouveia e https://doi.org/10.1016/j.physleta.2016.06.039
Are you familiar with using Lagrange multiplier to find extrema of a system unter constraints? If not, check Wikipedia. In short in 2d, one constraint case, $f(x,y)$ has extrema when $nabla mathcal{L(x,y)}=0$, in which $mathcal{L} = f(x,y)-lambda cdot g(x,y)$ with constraint $g(x,y)=0$.
In this case $g = Q^{(n)}-intrho dV^{(n)}_{int}-intsigma dS^{(n)}$. This comes from charge conservation. The total charge of a conductor Q is equal to all the charges inside the conductor and on the surface, i.e. $Q^{(n)}=intrho dV^{(n)}_{int}+intsigma dS^{(n)}$. Later in this article the same methode is deployed with constraints as results of Poisson's equation.
Answered by Chen on February 22, 2021
Get help from others!
Recent Questions
Recent Answers
© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP