Physics Asked on August 26, 2020
In $U(1)$ gauge, the transformation is given by $(c=1)$ $$e^{frac{ieint A_mu dx_mu}{hbar}}$$ I know that this form comes from the phase picked up by electrons in Aharonov-Bohm effect. However, in the magnetic Aharonov-Bohm effect, the form is connected with the existence of magnetic monopole. Such a monopole would restore a symmetry between the electric and magnetic sources in Maxwell’s equations.
My question is if a monopole is never found, does that imply a modification in the phase term? What will be the consequence if the phase changes by a constant factor independent of $$x_mu?$$
Your comments are highly appreciated.
It is the other way around. If the condition $vec nabla cdot vec B = 0$ does not hold then the vector potential cannot be defined. Indeed, $vec nabla cdot vec nabla times vec A = 0$ identically. Thus, if magnetic monopoles exist the expression must be modified.
Answered by my2cts on August 26, 2020
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