Physics Asked on September 26, 2021
The DGLAP equations read
$$frac{partial f_i(x,mu^2)}{partiallnmu^2}=sum_jint^1_xfrac{dz}{z}P_{ij}(z,alpha_s(mu^2))f_jleft(frac{x}{z},mu^2right),$$
where the $f_i$ are the parton distribution functions (PDFs), $P_{ij}$ are the so-called splitting kernels and $x,z$ are longitudinal momentum fractions.
But what is $mu$? In this paper on p.26 John Collins says it is the renormalisation scale, which enters the PDF via dimensional regularization. But I have already seen other authors claim that it is a factorization scale, e.g. here on p.2.
So, which one is it?
Following T. Plehn (p.7) the UV-renormalisation introduces a dependence on the renormalisation scale $mu$ and then the IR-regularisation introduces a further dependence on the factorisation scale $mu_F$. However, one is free to choose $mu$, such that one can set $mu:=mu_F$ R. Brock et al.(p.104), D.E. Soper(p.38), W.K. Tung [PDF (p.19)]. Hence, J.C. Collins' lack of mentioning the factorisation scale in most of his papers and most notably his book Foundations of Perturbative QCD.
Correct answer by Thomas Wening on September 26, 2021
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