Physics Asked by YechaoLiu on January 28, 2021
This question comes from my consideration of the superposition of coherent states such as $(|alpharangle+|0rangle)/sqrt{N}$.
I know the annihilation operator has $hat{a}|alpharangle=alpha|alpharangle$, which can be realized by single-photon subtraction.
Then mathematically, we have $hat{a}(|alpharangle+|0rangle)/sqrt{N}=alpha/sqrt{N} cdot |alpharangle$.
What I confused is that, as the state with trace not equal to one means the output is probabilistic, how we distinguish between (a) no state, such like the results form $hat{a}|0rangle$; and (b) zero photon state $|0rangle$.
Also how to understand $hat{a}|alpharangle=alpha|alpharangle$ physically? Is the coherent state scaled? If so, what difference between $alpha|alpharangle$ and $|alpharangle$.
Or, it should be considered as $hat{a}|alpharangle=|alpharangle$ and $hat{a}(|alpharangle+|0rangle)/sqrt{N}=|alpharangle$ in the experiments.
$hat a$ does not simply describe photon subtraction. If you subtract a photon, you have to normalize the resulting state -- that is, the process of photon subtraction only succeeds with a certain probability (given by the normalization).
Think about how you would design an experiment to subtract a photon: For instance, you could send the beam on a (weak) beam splitter, and install a photon counter in the other beam. If you detect exactly one photon there, then you have succeeded in subtracting a photon your state. Otherwise, your attempt to subtract one photon has failed (if you subtracted no photon, you could send the beam on another beam splitter, otherwise: bad luck).
Note, however, that this operation does not exactly implement photon subtraction, but only an approximate version thereof -- in fact, the exact operation of photon subtraction cannot be realized even probabilistically, see e.g. the introduction of https://arxiv.org/abs/1908.02207. You will, however, get a good approximation if the beam splitter is very weak so that it only reflects one photon with very small probability, i.e. with reflectivity $etall 1$ s.th. $eta|alpha|^2ll1$. Then, the effective operation implemented will be approximately $sqrteta hat alvertalpharangle = sqrtetaalphall 1$, and thus there is no issue that you would get a probability larger than $1$.
In the special case where you consider $hat a|0rangle$, the fact that the normalization is zero simply means that the probability to subtract one photon is zero. (Unsurprisingly.)
Answered by Norbert Schuch on January 28, 2021
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