Physics Asked by user17574 on December 29, 2020
Imagine we have a circuit on the xy-plane, with a random geometry (it just need to be closed). I want to calculate the magnetic moment of this setup:
$$vec{m} = frac{1}{2} int_V d^3 x’ vec{x}’ times vec{j}(vec{x}’)$$
Assuming that current is constant we get $I d vec{x}’ = vec{j}(vec{x}’)$ which turns the integral into:
$$vec{m} = frac{1}{2} int_V d^3 x’ vec{x}’ times (I dvec{x}’)$$
Next step in the computation, I’m trying to follow, is immediately writing down:
$$vec{m} = frac{1}{2} I int_{delta A} vec{x}’ times dvec{x}’$$
I probably flunked an important lesson and can’t understand what is happening here. We don’t use Stokes, because then the “$times$” would go away.
My question is: how does the integral over the volume/surface transform into one over its edge?
I think you should consider Ostrogradsky's theorem:
$iiint_Vleft[mathbf{G}cdotleft(nablatimesmathbf{F}right) - mathbf{F}cdot left( nablatimesmathbf{G}right)right], dV = underbrace{ointoint}_textrm{Surface} mathbf Ftimesmathbf{G}cdot dmathbf{S}.$
which is special case of the Stokes' theorem, but saves cross-product.
Answered by sigrlami on December 29, 2020
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