Physics Asked on March 26, 2021
Fermi’s golden rule is: $$R = frac{2pi}{hbar} |langle f| Delta H_0 |i rangle|^2 rho(E)$$ and it looks like all derivations of this at some point use the limit of a time dependent perturbation becoming essentially time constant. My question is, if we assume a time constant perturbation from the start, how can we get this $frac{2pi}{hbar}$ factor since it should be consistent?
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