Physics Asked on February 24, 2021
I have a question to this proof here: Adding a total time derivative term to the Lagrangian
I was asking myself why $$frac{partial dot{F}}{partial dot{q}} = frac{partial F}{partial q}.tag{1}$$ So to add a bit of context: We consider the Lagrangian $mathcal L^{*} = mathcal L(q, dot{q}, t) + frac{dF}{dt},$ where $F(q, t)$ is only a function of $q$ and $t$.
Now, $$frac{partial dot F}{partial dot q} = frac{partial F}{partial q} Leftrightarrow frac{d}{dt}frac{partial F}{partial dot{q}} – frac{partial F}{partial q} = 0, tag{2}$$ implying that $F(q,t)$ has to satisfy the E.L. equation.
But why should it, if it is chosen arbitrarily? I hope you know what I mean, thanks!
You can prove it in the following way $$dF=dF(q,t)=frac{partial F}{partial q}dq+frac{partial F}{partial t}dt$$ $$frac{dF}{dt}=dot{F}=frac{partial F}{partial q}dot{q}+frac{partial F}{partial t}$$ $$frac{partial dot{F}}{partial dot{q}}=frac{partial F}{partial q}$$
Cheers!
On OP's comment from the second last to last equation.
$$dot{F}=frac{partial F}{partial q}dot{q}+frac{partial F}{partial t}$$ The only way for $dot{q}$ to enter in this equation is through the first term on the right, the factor $partial F/partial q$ and $partial F/partial t $ are a function of $(q,t)$. On differentiating with respect to $dot{q}$, We get
$$frac{partial dot{F}}{partial dot{q}}=frac{partial F}{partial q}frac{partial}{partial dot{q}}dot{q}=frac{partial F}{partial q}$$
Correct answer by Young Kindaichi on February 24, 2021
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