Physics Asked on March 25, 2021
The total angular momentum of the system can be found by forming the cross prodcut of ${bf r}_i×{bf p}_i$ and summing over i
Also since (N is toruqe):
In my textbook its says that last term in the 2nd equation can be expanded so
However i am having trouble understanding how the expanding the sum can give this?
Is it correct to assume this: $sum_{i,j}a_itimes b_j= a_itimes b_j + a_j times b_i $ (which seems wrong to me)
This is the whole extract from the textbook:
It's just the third law ${bf F}_{ij}= -{bf F}_{ji}$, so $$ sum_{i,j} {bf r}_itimes {bf F}_{ij}= frac 12 sum_{i,j} ({bf r}_itimes {bf F}_{ij}+{bf r}_jtimes {bf F}_{ji}) quad (hbox{just relabelling }ileftrightarrow j) = frac 12 sum_{i,j} ({bf r}_itimes {bf F}_{ij}-{bf r}_jtimes {bf F}_{ij}) frac 12 sum_{i,j} ({bf r}_i-{bf r}_j)times {bf F}_{ij} = sum_{langle i,jrangle} ({bf r}_i-{bf r}_j)times {bf F}_{ij}, $$ where $langle i,jrangle$ denotes the pair composed of $i$ and $j$. This means that $langle 1,2rangle $ is not counted twice as being $i=1,j=2$ and $i=2,j=1$, for example.
I bet your book goes on to say that $({bf r}_i-{bf r}_j)times {bf F}_{ij}=0$ because the force is parallel to the line separating the particles. If the book does do this, it is a common textbook cheat because there is no reason for this to be so if the forces arise from chemical bonds. The sum $$ sum_{i,j}({bf r}_i-{bf r}_j)times {bf F}_{ij} $$ does vanish for a rigid body --- but the reason for this is not that the individual $({bf r}_i-{bf r}_j)$ are parallel to ${bf F}_{ij}$.
This "parallel" argument is correct, however, if the forces are gravitational or electrostatic, as these are examples of the special case of central forces.
Correct answer by mike stone on March 25, 2021
This eqution is correct,
$r_i times F_{ji} + r_j times F_{ij} = $
$r_i times F_{ji} - r_j times F_{ji} = $
$(r_i- r_j) times F_{ji} $
To get the second line we used Newton's third law i.e. $F_{ij} = - F_{ji}$.
Now let's look a the terms in the second sum,
$sum_{i,j,ineq j} r_i times F_{ji} =$
$frac{1}{2} sum_{i,j,ineq j} ( r_i times F_{ji} + r_i times F_{ji} ) =$
$frac{1}{2} Big( sum_{i,j,ineq j} r_i times F_{ji} + sum_{i,j,ineq j} r_i times F_{ji} Big) $
These two sums are independent of each other so you can relabel $i$ and $j$ as follow
$frac{1}{2} Big( sum_{i,j,ineq j} r_i times F_{ji} + sum_{i,j,ineq j} r_j times F_{ij} Big) =$
$frac{1}{2}sum_{i,j,ineq j} Big( r_i times F_{ji} + r_j times F_{ij} Big) =$
$frac{1}{2}sum_{i,j,ineq j} ( r_i - r_j )times F_{ji}$
Answered by Kian Maleki on March 25, 2021
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