Physics Asked on June 9, 2021
I was curious what would happen if we had a free particle hamiltonian and saw what would happen if your initial wavefunction was a delta function and time evolve it using Schrodinger’s Equation (say in one dimension). Here were my thoughts:
$$-frac{hbar^2}{2m}partial^2_xpsi = ihbar partial_t psi$$
Taking the Fourier transform, which I call $F(cdot)$, and $F(psi) = tilde{psi}$:
$$partial_t tilde{psi} = frac{hbar i}{2m} (2pi i k)^2 tilde{psi}$$
$$implies tilde{psi} = tilde{psi}(t=0)exp(frac{-2pi^2hbar k^2 it}{m})$$
If we our initial wavefunction is a delta function (say centered at $x=0)$:
$$tilde{psi}(t=0) = F(delta(x)) = int delta(x) exp(-2pi i xk) dx= 1$$
$$implies tilde{psi}(k, t) = exp(frac{-2pi^2hbar k^2 it}{m})$$
Thus, in position space:
$$psi(x, t) = F(tilde{psi}) = int exp(frac{-2pi^2hbar k^2 it}{m}) exp(2pi ixk)dk$$
I believe this is correct, and (if it is) my main question is how do you interpret it?
You've found the integral representation of Green's function for the free particle Schrodinger equation. Delta-function is not a square-integrable function, but in quantum mechanics we often consider $delta(x)$ as the eigenfunction of the operator $hat{x}$ in coordinate representation: $$ hat{x}|x'rangle = x'|x'rangle, quad langle x| x'rangle = delta(x-x'). $$ From your question formulation follows equality $$ psi(x,t) = langle x | e^{-frac{i}hbar hat{H} t} | x' = 0 rangle qquad (*) $$ Free particle problem possess translational invariance, so $$ psi(x,t) = langle x+x_0 | e^{-frac{i}hbar hat{H} t} | x_0 rangle $$ for any $x_0$. As $psi(x,t)$ is the matrix element of the evolution operator, it is straightforward to express the solution to the non-stationary Schrodinger equation in the following form: $$ phi(x,t) = int psi(x-x',t) phi(x',0) dx' $$
Answered by Gec on June 9, 2021
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