Does Feynman refer to Planck's constant in his water wave thought experiment?

Excerpt from the Feynman Lectures, Volume III, Quantum Behavior:

The instantaneous height of the water wave at the detector for the wave from hole 1 can be written as (the real part of) $hat{h}_1e^{iomega t}$, where the “amplitude” h1 is, in general, a complex number. The intensity is proportional to the mean squared height or, when we use the complex numbers, to the absolute value squared $|h_1|^2$. Similarly, for hole 2 the height is $h_2e^{i{omega}t}$ and the intensity is proportional to $|h_2|^2$. When both holes are open, the wave heights add to give the height $(h_1+h_2)e^{i{omega}t}$ and the intensity $|h_1+h_2|^2$. Omitting the constant of proportionality for our present purposes, the proper relations for interfering waves are:

• $I_1 = |h_1|^2$, $I_2 = |h_2|^2$, $I_12 = |h_1+h_2|^2$

The figure:

Is Planck’s constant the one that Feynman refers to here?