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Does a 2D (real-space) wavefunction always has to be a product of two 1D wavefunction (i.e. always separable)?

Physics Asked by UChat on May 3, 2021

In the first-quantization formalism for many particle quantum mechanics, let $|x rangle$ and $|y rangle$ be two basis for two particles $A$ and $B$: $psi_A(x) = langle x | psi_A rangle$ and $psi_B(y) = langle y | psi_B rangle$.

As I understand, $| vec{r} rangle = |xrangle otimes |yrangle$, where $vec{r}$ is the usual 2D position vector. The many-particle state is $|Psi rangle = |psi_A rangle otimes |psi_B rangle$ and the wave-function then:

$$
Psi(vec{r}) = langle vec{r} | Psi rangle
= (langle x|otimes langle y|)(|psi_A rangle otimes |psi_B rangle)= psi_A(x)psi_B(y)
$$

So, it implies such two-particle wavefunction in 2D will always have the product form. Is that generally true or follows from the fact the particles were restricted along one-dimension to begin with?

If so, if we have a single particle moving in two dimensions, in linear-algebra language, what kind of object $(langle x | otimes langle y|) |psirangle $ is (in other words, if we consider the 2D position vector as a tensor product of two Hilbert spaces $x$ and $y$, which space the single-particle wavefunction $|psirangle$ belong to)?

One Answer

No, this is not generally true. The reason is that you are assuming that a general two-particle state is given by $|psi_A rangleotimes |psi_Brangle$, and this is not the case. A general two-particle state is a linear combination of product states, i.e.

$$|Psirangle = sum_n c_n |psi_{A_n}rangle otimes |psi_{B_n}rangle $$ In the position basis, we would write

$$|Psirangle = int mathrm dx_1 int mathrm dx_2 psi(x_1,x_2) |x_1rangle otimes |x_2rangle $$

where $psi(x_1,x_2)$ is an element of $L^2(mathbb R)otimes L^2(mathbb R)simeq L^2(mathbb R^2)$ and is under no obligation to factor. If it does factor, so $psi(x_1,x_2) = psi_A(x_1) psi_B(x_2)$, then we can write

$$|psirangle = left(int mathrm dx_1 psi_A (x_1) |x_1rangle right)otimes left(int mathrm dx_2 psi_B(x_2) |x_2rangle right) = |psi_Arangleotimes |psi_Brangle$$

but there is no reason to expect this to be true a priori. In fact, if the two particles are indistinguishable fermions then $psi(x_1,x_2) = -psi(x_2,x_1)$, which is sufficient to show that they cannot be in a product state.


You may be interested in this answer I wrote about the difference between the direct product $mathcal H_A times mathcal H_B$ and the tensor product $mathcal H_A otimes mathcal H_B$. The key difference is the central point of this answer, namely that elements of the former are all product states while elements of the latter are linear combinations of product states. Modeling composite systems using the latter construction opens up the possibility of having non-product states, which are usually called entangled in a physics context.

Answered by J. Murray on May 3, 2021

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