Physics Asked by tinghaoliu on July 29, 2021
I have learned about the commutators, and read this:
$$[A, f(B)] = f'[A,B]+frac{1}{2}f”([A,B]B+B[A,B])+frac{1}{3!}f”'([A,B]B^2+B[A,B]+B^2[A,B])+…$$
then Simplified to
$$[A, f(B)] = [A,B](f’+f”B+frac{1}{2}f”’B^2+…)=[A,B]frac{df}{dB}$$
I do understand the first two equations, only don’t understand is why the series $$(f’ + f”B + frac{1}{2}f”’ B^2+…)$$ equals to $$frac{df}{dB}$$
This is simply an identity of Taylor expansion and has nothing to do with the fact that you have operators around, if $$f(x)=sum_n frac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!}x^n$$ then $$frac{df}{dx} = sum_n frac{f^{(n+1)}}{n!}x^n$$ which simplifies to the third equation.
Writing $frac{df}{dB}$ is just a notation for $frac{df}{dx}|_{x=B}$. The reason for that is that analytic functions of operators are defined by their Taylor series.
Answered by Yarden Sheffer on July 29, 2021
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