Physics Asked by Maskoff on February 26, 2021
I found this exercise from text book:
- Consider a $2 mathrm{D}$ vortex with complex potential
$$
W(z)=frac{i}{2 pi} ln (z-1)
$$
i) Compute the circulation around the loop $Gamma$ given by the algebraic equation $x^{2}+y^{2}=frac{1}{2} .$ ii $)$ An infinitely long impermeable wall is placed along the $y$ axis. Determine the new complex potential of the vortex that accounts for the presence of the wall. Plot the streamlines and potential lines. iii) Compute the velocity vector at $(x=0, y=0)$
This is similar to what we discussed from class, a vortex flow but with different $z$, that is, we introduced complex potential for vortex is given by
$F(z)=-i c log z$ , here the problem used $z-1$ instead of $z$. How to correctly understand this change of complex variable?
My approach is to treat new origin as $(1,0)$, is that correct?
Any help or hint is appreciated.
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