Philosophy Asked by cluelesschloe on December 6, 2021
I am totally lost on how to do this… can anyone help?
What does it mean? I tried to understand what it means before proof but am totally clueless
@GrahamKemp is correct. The statement says that if P(x) holds for no member of the universe of discourse, then P(a)->Q(a).
Recall that the truth table for the material conditional informs us that a material conditional statement is true when the antecedent is false.
Answered by Rob on December 6, 2021
¬∃xP(x)→(P(a)→Q(a))
What does it mean? I tried to understand what it means before proof but am totally clueless
It says: P(a)→Q(a)
is true, if P(x)
holds for no x
.
So why would P(a)→Q(a)
be true when that is assumed?
Answered by Graham Kemp on December 6, 2021
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