Personal Finance & Money Asked by Sanderi on January 8, 2021
It's important to understand this as an investor.
There is a metric called "duration". It's the time weighted average of all the coupons and final payment you'd receive over the life of the bond. Logically, a zero coupon bond has the longest duration (equal to its maturity) vs one with coupons, given equal maturities. And the price impact is the change in rate times duration, at the margin. e.g. a 10 year zero will drop about 1% in price for a .1% rise in rate.
So we kill (1) and (2), and go for the 20 year. The higher coupon has a shorter duration, as we get more money back sooner. Therefore it's the 5%, number (4).
Correct answer by JTP - Apologise to Monica on January 8, 2021
Get help from others!
Recent Questions
Recent Answers
© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP