Mathematics Asked by yy66yy on December 8, 2021
Suppose $X$ is a continuous random variable. If $mathbb{E}[X,|,mathcal{F}]=mathbb{E}[X,|,mathcal{G}]$ almost everywhere for two sub-sigma algebra $mathcal{F}$ and $mathcal{G}$, does this imply $mathcal{F}$ and $mathcal{G}$ are set theoretically identical?
No. If $X,Y,Z$ are independent, $mathcal F=sigma (Y)$ and $mathcal G =sigma (Z)$ then $mathbb E( X|mathcal F)=mathbb E(X|mathcal G)=mathbb EX$.
Answered by Kavi Rama Murthy on December 8, 2021
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