TransWikia.com

Question on the proof of Theorem 7-1 in Spivak's Calculus

Mathematics Asked by toronto hrb on December 5, 2021

I have a question regarding the following proof in Spivak’s Calculus. (I excerpted the post by Kepler 9 years ago)

Theorem 7-1:

If $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and $f(a) < 0 < f(b)$, then there is some number $z$ in $[a,b]$ such that $f(x) = 0$.

Proof:
Define the set $A$ as follows:

$$A = {x : a le xle b, mbox{ and } f mbox{ is negative on the interval } [a,x] }.$$

     Clearly $A ne emptyset$, since $a$ is in $A$; in fact, there is some $delta > 0$ such that $A$ contains all points $x$ satisfying $a le x < a + delta$; this follows from Problem 6-16, since $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and $f(a)<0$. Similarly, $b$ is an upper bound for $A$ and, in fact, there is a $delta > 0$ such that all points $x$ satisfying $b-delta < x le b$ are upper bounds for $A$; this also follows from Problem 6-16, since $f(b) > 0$.

     
From these remarks it follows that $A$ has a least upper bound $alpha$ and that $a < alpha < b$. We now wish to show that $f(alpha) = 0$, by eliminating the possibilities $f(alpha) < 0$ and $f(alpha) > 0$.

     
Suppose first that $f(alpha) < 0$. By Theorem 6-3, there is a $delta > 0$ such that $f(x) < 0$ for $alpha – delta < x < alpha + delta$. Now there is some number $x_0$ in $A$ which satisfies $alpha – delta < x_0 < alpha$ (because otherwise $alpha$ would not be the least upper bound of $A$). This means that $f$ is negative on the whole interval $[a,x_0]$. But if $x_1$ is a number between $alpha$ and $alpha+delta$, then $f$ is also negative on the whole interval $[x_0,x_1]$. Therefore $f$ is negative on the interval $[a,x_1]$, so $x_1$ is in $A$. But this contradicts the fact that $alpha$ is an upper bound for $A$; our original assumption that $f(alpha) < 0$ must be false.

$$cdots$$

Is "Now there is some number $x_0$ in $A$ which satisfies $alpha – delta < x_0 < alpha$" in the last paragraph above wrong? Should it be $alpha – delta < x_0 le alpha$? Although this won’t affect the proof, I am just wondering whether my understanding of the least upper bound is correct or not. Thanks in advance.

One Answer

The only way for the inequality not to be strict is that $A={alpha}$. But this is impossible, since if $f$ is negative on $[a,alpha]$, then it is negative on $[a,alpha-delta]$ for $delta>0$. And $alpha>a$ because $f$ is continuous.

In summary, the strict inequality is fine because of the context. It's not because of the definition of least upper bound.

Answered by Martin Argerami on December 5, 2021

Add your own answers!

Ask a Question

Get help from others!

© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP