Mathematics Asked by flowian on February 14, 2021
I tried Exercise K from chapter 2 of General Topology by Kelley. Is this enough to show isomorphism between Boolean rings? This is part (d).
Let $X$ be a set and let $Bbb Z_2^x$ be the family of all functions on $X$ to $Bbb Z_2$ , Define addition and multiplication of functions pointwise:
- $(f + g)(x) = f(x) + g(x)$, and
- $(f cdot g) (x) = f(x) cdot g(x)$.
Then $(Bbb Z_2^x ,+,cdot)$ is a Boolean ring with unit and is isomorphic to $(mathcal a =mathcal P(X),Delta, bigcap)$.
Assume $(mathcal a =mathcal P(X),Delta, bigcap)$ is Boolean ring (followed from previous exercise).
Proof. Observe that any function of $Bbb Z_2^x$ has value of either $0$ or $1$.
So let $f,gin Bbb Z_2^x$, then for any $xin X$ sum of the functions and multiplication is in ${0,1}$ for any $xin X$:
So in all cases, the addition satisfies definition of Boolean ring, which is $r+r=0 quad forall rin R$.
Likewise with multiplication in Bool. ring: $rcdot r=r$. If $f(x)=0$, then $0cdot 0=0=f(x)$, and $1cdot 1=1$ for $f(x)=1$.
Now to show isomorphism between $(Bbb Z_2^x ,+,cdot)$ and $(mathcal a,Delta, bigcap)$ let
$$varphi: Bbb Z_2^x to mathcal a.$$
Then $forall fin Bbb Z_2^x$:
$begin{align}
bullet varphi(f(x)+f(x))=varphi(0)=emptyset&=ADelta A \
&=varphi(f(x)) Delta varphi(f(x)),\
bullet varphi(f(x)cdot f(x))= varphi(f(x))=A&=Abigcap A\
&=varphi(f(x))bigcap varphi(f(x)) \
&= varphi(f(x)cdot f(x)). square
end{align}$
That $Bbb Z_2^X$ is actually a Boolean ring looks OK.
The second part of the proof consists of actually specifying the isomorphism and checking it. I don't see you define $phi$ at all, just state the properties it should have.
So define $phi: Bbb Z_2^X to mathscr{P}(X)$ by $$phi(f) = f^{-1}[{1}] ={x in X: f(x)=1} in mathscr{P}(X) text{ for } f in Bbb Z_2^X$$
One directly checks that $phi(overline{0}) = emptyset$ and $phi(overline{1})=X$.
Then note that $x in phi(fg)$ iff $fcdot g(x)=1$ iff $f(x)=1 land g(x)=1$ iff $x in phi(f) cap phi(g)$
so that $phi(fg)=phi(f) cap phi(g)$ as sets.
Also $x in phi(f+g)$ iff $(f+g)(x)=1$ iff $f(x)+g(x)=1$ iff exactly one of ${f(x), g(x)}$ is $1$ iff $x$ is in exactly one of $phi(f)$ or $phi(g)$ iff $x in phi(f) Delta phi(g)$
so that $phi(f+g)=phi(f) Delta phi(g)$ as sets as well.
This shows that $phi$ preserves ring operations, it finally remains to show that $phi$ is a bijection between $Bbb Z_2^X$ and $mathscr{P}(X)$, do you see why this holds?
Correct answer by Henno Brandsma on February 14, 2021
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