Mathematics Asked by Siddharth Bhat on January 29, 2021
Consider the localization of $R = mathbb Z/10mathbb Z$ at $6$. We use the multiplicative subset $S = { 1, 6 }$. we build fractions of the form $r/s$ with $rin R, s in S$, with the equivalence relation: $r/s sim r’/s’ $ iff there exists an $alpha in S$ such that $alpha (rs’ – r’s) = 0$.
Crunching the equivalence relations, we find:
ring: Ring of integers modulo 10
localizing at s0=6 | S = [1, 6]
===Equivalence classes===
((0, 1), set([(0, 1), (5, 6), (5, 1), (0, 6)]))
((8, 1), set([(8, 1), (8, 6), (3, 1), (3, 6)]))
((2, 1), set([(7, 6), (2, 6), (2, 1), (7, 1)]))
((4, 1), set([(4, 1), (9, 6), (4, 6), (9, 1)]))
((6, 1), set([(6, 1), (1, 6), (1, 1), (6, 6)]))
****0/1****
- 0/ 1 (~ 1) [mod 10] | ( 0* 1 - 1* 0) * 1 = ( 0 - 0) * 1 = 0 * 1 = 0
- 5/ 6 (~ 6) [mod 10] | ( 0* 6 - 1* 5) * 6 = ( 0 - 5) * 6 = 5 * 6 = 0
- 5/ 1 (~ 6) [mod 10] | ( 0* 1 - 1* 5) * 6 = ( 0 - 5) * 6 = 5 * 6 = 0
- 0/ 6 (~ 1) [mod 10] | ( 0* 6 - 1* 0) * 1 = ( 0 - 0) * 1 = 0 * 1 = 0
****8/1****
- 8/ 1 (~ 1) [mod 10] | ( 8* 1 - 1* 8) * 1 = ( 8 - 8) * 1 = 0 * 1 = 0
- 8/ 6 (~ 1) [mod 10] | ( 8* 6 - 1* 8) * 1 = ( 8 - 8) * 1 = 0 * 1 = 0
- 3/ 1 (~ 6) [mod 10] | ( 8* 1 - 1* 3) * 6 = ( 8 - 3) * 6 = 5 * 6 = 0
- 3/ 6 (~ 6) [mod 10] | ( 8* 6 - 1* 3) * 6 = ( 8 - 3) * 6 = 5 * 6 = 0
****2/1****
- 7/ 6 (~ 6) [mod 10] | ( 2* 6 - 1* 7) * 6 = ( 2 - 7) * 6 = 5 * 6 = 0
- 2/ 6 (~ 1) [mod 10] | ( 2* 6 - 1* 2) * 1 = ( 2 - 2) * 1 = 0 * 1 = 0
- 2/ 1 (~ 1) [mod 10] | ( 2* 1 - 1* 2) * 1 = ( 2 - 2) * 1 = 0 * 1 = 0
- 7/ 1 (~ 6) [mod 10] | ( 2* 1 - 1* 7) * 6 = ( 2 - 7) * 6 = 5 * 6 = 0
****4/1****
- 4/ 1 (~ 1) [mod 10] | ( 4* 1 - 1* 4) * 1 = ( 4 - 4) * 1 = 0 * 1 = 0
- 9/ 6 (~ 6) [mod 10] | ( 4* 6 - 1* 9) * 6 = ( 4 - 9) * 6 = 5 * 6 = 0
- 4/ 6 (~ 1) [mod 10] | ( 4* 6 - 1* 4) * 1 = ( 4 - 4) * 1 = 0 * 1 = 0
- 9/ 1 (~ 6) [mod 10] | ( 4* 1 - 1* 9) * 6 = ( 4 - 9) * 6 = 5 * 6 = 0
****6/1****
- 6/ 1 (~ 1) [mod 10] | ( 6* 1 - 1* 6) * 1 = ( 6 - 6) * 1 = 0 * 1 = 0
- 1/ 6 (~ 6) [mod 10] | ( 6* 6 - 1* 1) * 6 = ( 6 - 1) * 6 = 5 * 6 = 0
- 1/ 1 (~ 6) [mod 10] | ( 6* 1 - 1* 1) * 6 = ( 6 - 1) * 6 = 5 * 6 = 0
- 6/ 6 (~ 1) [mod 10] | ( 6* 6 - 1* 6) * 1 = ( 6 - 6) * 1 = 0 * 1 = 0
I find it exremely counter-intuitive that $0/1 sim 5/6 ~(operatorname{mod} 10)$. How should I think of the fraction $5/6$ becoming equal to $0$ when localizing at $6$, without trying to find an element $alpha in S$ such that $(6*0 + 5*1) alpha = 0$. How can I "instantly see" which fractions are equivalent?
Similarly, I find it really counter intuitive that somehow, $3/1 = 8/1$ on performing this localization. What is actually "going on" here?
In general, giving $a/b$ and $c/d$ in $mathbb Z/nmathbb Z$ localized at $s_0$, how do we know if $a/b sim c/d$ by "just looking", without having to cross multiply and find an element $alpha in S$ that kills of the cross ratio?
Even more generally, how do I gain an intuition for the general case in a ring $R$ with multiplicative subset $S$?
Intuition behind localization is better understood with other kind of rings. If you think of $R[x,y]$ and perform the same constructions you would get better ideas. The key idea is that you are selecting which polinomial can get a multiplicative inverse (unlike it happens if you take the whole field of fractions). You can develop a lot of intuition of commutative algebra with the ring $R[x,y]$, thinking of "functions-polynomials" defined on the plane. Then, you can think of ANY ring (for example, your $mathbb{Z}/10mathbb{Z}$) as functions defined in an special geometric object called Scheme, in this case, the spectrum of $mathbb{Z}/10mathbb{Z}$.
I recommend you the book: The geometry of Schemes, by Eisenbud and Harris.
Answered by Antonio J Pan on January 29, 2021
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