Mathematics Asked by user12588 on February 23, 2021
I recently encountered the following integral
$$I_pequiv intlimits_0^{+infty},intlimits_{-infty}^{+infty},e^{-p,[c+(c^2+1)cosh x]},mathrm{d}x,mathrm{d}c,,$$
with $p>0$. Can $I_p$ be calculated in terms of elementary functions?
Update:
Using the following integral representation for the Bessel function
$$
intlimits_0^{+infty}e^{-acosh x};mathrm{d}x=K_0(a),,
$$
one can bring $I_p$ to the following form:
$$
I_p=2 intlimits_0^{+infty}e^{-c,p};K_0left[left(c^2+1right) pright];mathrm{d}c,.
$$
Which shows that $I_p$ can be seen as a Laplace transform. However, I haven’t managed to do the last integral either.
Given the mess that results in doing just one of the integrals, I think it would be shocking if your integral had a closed form in elementary functions. We will find the large $p$ behavior. Let
$$ I(p)=intlimits_0^infty dx e^{-px} K_0left[p(x^2+1)right] $$
Using the asymptotic expansion for $K_0$
$$ K_0(z)simsqrt{frac{pi}{2z}}e^{-z}sumlimits_{n=0}^infty c_n z^{-n} , z to infty $$
We will not need the form of the $c_n$ here. When we substitute $z=p(x^2+1)$, we will get a Gaussian $e^{-p(x^2+1)}$; we will use (essentially) Laplace's method to do the integral for large $p$. When we do, all the factors of $(x^2+1)$ outside the exponent will be evaluated at the maxima $x=0$. We will be left with
$$ sqrt{frac{pi}{2p}}e^{-p(x^2+1)} sumlimits_{n=0}^infty c_np^{-n} $$
But this simplifies because the sum is known
$$ K_0(p)simsqrt{frac{pi}{2p}}e^{-p}sumlimits_{n=0}^infty c_np^{-n} , p to infty $$
So we get
$$ I(p)sim intlimits_0^infty dx e^{-px} e^{p-p(x^2+1)} K_0(p) , p to infty $$
The integral is an error function
$$ I(p) sim sqrt{frac{pi}{p}}e^{p/4}operatorname{erfc}left(frac{sqrt{p}}{2} right) K_0(p) , p to infty $$
Here is a plot of the approximation versus numeric result for 'large' values of $p$ less than $1$:
Answered by Sal on February 23, 2021
By Fubinis theorem: $$I_p = intlimits_0^{+infty},intlimits_{-infty}^{+infty},e^{-p,[c+(c^2+1)cosh x]},mathrm{d}x,mathrm{d}c =intlimits_{-infty}^{+infty},intlimits_{0}^{+infty},e^{-p,[c+(c^2+1)cosh x]},mathrm{d}c,mathrm{d}x.$$ We can solve the integral with respect to $c$ analytically: $$intlimits_{0}^{+infty},e^{-p,[c+(c^2+1)cosh x]},mathrm{d}c = -dfrac{sqrt{{pi}}mathrm{e}^{frac{p}{4coshleft(xright)}-pcoshleft(xright)}left(operatorname{erf}left(frac{sqrt{p}}{2sqrt{coshleft(xright)}}right)-1right)}{2sqrt{pcoshleft(xright)}}$$ I am afraid that we can't solve the second integral analytically.
Answered by vitamin d on February 23, 2021
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