Mathematics Asked by Captain Nick on December 15, 2021
Supposoe we have normal variable $ N(mu_t, sigma_t^2 ) $.
Let’s define X = $int_0^T N(mu_t, sigma_t^2 ) dt$.
Is X also a normal variable?
It’s simple to check that expectation of X is simply $int_0^T mu_t dt$ as
$mathbb{E} (int) = int (mathbb{E})$.BUT it is not the case for variance as
$mathbb{V} (X) = mathbb{V} (int_0^T N(mu_t, sigma_t^2 ) dt)
approx mathbb{V} (sum_i N(mu_i, sigma_i^2 ) triangle) =
> mathbb{V} (sum_i N(mu_i, triangle^2sigma_i^2 ) )$Entering the sum into normal variable:
$mathbb{V} (N( sum_i mu_i, sum_i triangle^2sigma_i^2 ) ) =
sum_i triangle^2sigma_i^2$Now I would like to get back to integrals and do something like this:
$sum_i triangle^2sigma_i^2 approx int_0^T triangle sigma_t^2
dt, triangle to 0$But it seems weird…
Could someone help me to find the good variance and figure out where I
was wrong?
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