Mathematics Asked by Bud Light D.Va on January 6, 2021
In munkres topology for theorem 59.3, he provided a homeomorphism between $S^n- p$ and $mathbb{R}^n$,
where
$$f(x) = frac{1}{1 – x_{n+1}} (x_1, dots , x_n)$$
and
$$f^{-1}(y) = (t(y)y_1, dots , t(y)y_n, 1- t(y))$$
given $t(y) = frac{2}{1+ ||y||^2}$.
how do I check that they are actually the inverse of each other?
(I tried to plug in one to the other, but he algebra is just horrible.)
(This is on page 369 in munkres)
I dispute the "horror" of the algebra. For $f^{-1}(f(x))$, let's write $a$ for $1/(1-x_{n+1})$. Then $y_i=ax_i$ and $$|y|^2=a^2|(x_1,ldots,x_n)|^2=a^2(1-x_{n+1}^2)=frac{1+x_{n+1}}{1-x_{n+1}}$$ and $$1+|y|^2=frac2{1-x_{n+1}}$$ since $x$ is on the unit sphere. Then $$t=t(y)=frac2{1+|y|^2}=1-x_{n+1}.$$ So $$f^{-1}(y)=((1-x_{n+1})y_1,ldots,(1-x_{n+1})y_n,x_{n+1})=x$$ since $x_i=(1-x_{n+1})y_i$.
Doing $f(f^{-1}(y))$ is no more difficult.
Correct answer by Angina Seng on January 6, 2021
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