Mathematics Asked by Prasiortle on January 7, 2021
So many solutions on here seem to use the following result: if $f(z)$ has a pole at $z_0$, and $lim_{z to z_0}(z-z_0)^{m}f(z)$ is finite and non-zero (or possibly just finite?), then $z_0$ is a pole of order $m$. How is this result proved?
Assume that $lim_{z rightarrow z_0} (z-z_0)^m f(z) < infty$. This means that $(z-z_0)^m f(z)$ has at most (or worst if you will) a removable singularity at $z_0$. Make sure you understand why this is or prove it!
Consider tha Laurent series of $f$ around $z_0$:
$$f(z) = sum_{n = -infty}^{infty} a_n (z-z_0)^n$$
$$(z-z_0)^mf(z) = (z-z_0)^m sum_{n = -infty}^{infty} a_n (z-z_0)^n = sum_{n = -infty}^{infty} a_n (z-z_0)^{n+m}$$
Since, as we commented earlier, this function has at most a removable singularity at $z_0$, $a_n = 0$ for all $n+m < 0 implies n < -m$, i.e.
$$(z-z_0)^m f(z) = sum_{n=-m}^{infty} a_n(z-z_0)^{n+m}.$$
We divide by $(z-z_0)^m$ and get
$$f(z) = sum_{n=-m}^{infty} a_n (z-z_0)^n,$$
which shows that $z_0$ is a pole of order $m$.
Correct answer by Fenris on January 7, 2021
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