Mathematics Asked on January 22, 2021
I have two questions. Let $V$ be a subspace of finite-dimensional vector space $U$. Suppose $u_kto u_0$ in $U$ as $ktoinfty$.
First, for any $fin U’$, is it true that $f(u_k)to f(u_0)$? If so, why is this true?
Second, does $u_kto u_0$ in $U$ imply that $[u_k]to[u_0]$ in $U/V$ as $ktoinfty$ where the norm of $U/V$ is induced by the norm of $U$ by $vertvert[u]vertvert=inf{vertvert vvertvert :vin [u]}$ where $[u]in U/V$ and $uin U$?
Note: $U’$ denotes the dual space of $U$ (space of linear functionals)
The answer of both questios is yes. The first by the continuity of linear functionals and the second by continity of the canonical proyection $P:Uto U/V$, note that every linear function between finite dimensional vector spaces is continuous in any norms.
Correct answer by Mephisto on January 22, 2021
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