Mathematics Asked by In-finite on December 10, 2020
Let $a,$ $b,$ $c,$ $d,$ $e,$ $f$ be nonnegative real numbers.
(a) Prove that
$$(a^2 + b^2)^2 (c^4 + d^4)(e^4 + f^4) ge (ace + bdf)^4.$$
(b) Prove that
$$(a^2 + b^2)(c^2 + d^2)(e^2 + f^2) ge (ace + bdf)^2.$$
I’m not sure how I should start approaching both problems. I believe I should use Cauchy-Schwartz, but I’m not sure.
Any help would be appreciated! Thanks in advance.
These are both CS inequality applications, you should try yourself. Here is the first one:
Now combine the two to get what you want.
Correct answer by Macavity on December 10, 2020
For (a),
Just use Holder's Inequality.
For (b),
Expand $(a^2 + b^2) (c^2 + d^2) (e^2 + f^2) $. (It is equivalent to the LHS of my answer)
Expand $(ace + bdf)^2$. (It is equivalent to the RHS of my answer)
The problem is just proving
$$
a^2 c^2 e^2 + a^2 c^2 f^2 + a^2 d^2 e^2 + a^2 d^2 f^2 + b^2 c^2 e^2 + b^2 c^2 f^2 + b^2 d^2 e^2 + b^2 d^2 f^2 ge a^2 c^2 e^2 + b^2 d^2 f^2 + 2abcdef
$$ or
$$
a^2 c^2 f^2 + a^2 d^2 e^2 + a^2 d^2 f^2 + b^2 c^2 e^2 + b^2 c^2 f^2 + b^2 d^2 e^2 ge 2abcdef quad textrm{By cancelling 2 terms on the left and right side.}
$$
Now, that is just
$$
(acf - bde)^2 + a^2 d^2 e^2 + a^2 d^2 f^2 + b^2 c^2 e^2 + b^2 c^2 f^2 ge 0
$$
We have proved by this that the inequality is valid for any real numbers, not only non-negative ones.
Answered by Book Of Flames on December 10, 2020
Get help from others!
Recent Answers
Recent Questions
© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP