Mathematics Asked by Martyna on February 11, 2021
Let $x$,$y$ and $z$ be three linearly independent vectors. Explain, with justification, whether or not
$operatorname{span}{x,,y,,z}=operatorname{span}{x+y,,y+z,,z+x}$.
Let $a=x+y, b=y+z, c=z+x.$
Then $$pmatrix{a\b\c} = pmatrix{1&1&0\0&1&1\1&0&1}pmatrix{x\y\z}$$ and $$ pmatrix{x\y\z}= frac{1}{2}pmatrix{1&-1&1\1&1&-1\-1&1&1}pmatrix{a\b\c}$$
Since there is an invertible transformation from one set of vectors to the other, the spans are equivalent.
Answered by mjw on February 11, 2021
Assume W := v ∈ span{x+y, y+z, z+x} then
v = a(x+y) + b(y+z) + c(z+x)
= (a+c)x + (a+b)y + (b+c)z
so that if v ∈ W then v ∈ U, i.e. W ⊆ U. Assume v ∈ U then
v = ax + by + cz
= ((a+b−c)/2)(x+y) + ((b+c−a)/2)(y+z) + ((a−b+c)/2)(z+x) ∈ W
i.e. U ⊆ W.
Answered by Martyna on February 11, 2021
$x = frac{1}{2}(x+y)-frac{1}{2}(y+z)+frac{1}{2}(z+x)$
$y = frac{1}{2}(x+y) -frac{1}{2}(z+x) + frac{1}{2}(y+z)$
$z = frac{1}{2}(y+z) -frac{1}{2}(x+y) + frac{1}{2}(z+x)$
So $x,y,z$ can be written as a linear combination of $(x+y),(z+x),(y+z)$ , hence the spans are equal.
Answered by Sven456 on February 11, 2021
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