Law Asked by Phi on November 9, 2020
I am an avid community user for a paid software. The users buy the software, but not access to support. The company makes a strong use of the friendly community in their product advertisements.
The community support (Discord, and a forum) comes with their own terms of service. To date, I’ve witnessed several people be banned from community services without disclosed reason, with no violation of the terms of use.
After the ban, they are ignored when they ask for explanation, and "third-party" users such as myself are refused any details under the ground it is private – even when the user in question is asking me to speak for them as they cannot reach the company directly.
The users I’ve seen have been helpful, had good reputation, have had no warnings, and are suitably confused by the actions taken against them. In the latest incident, the user had not been active for a month, not posting for longer, yet was banned for "reports from users that your behaviour and speech was inappropriate".
When they tried to work out why, they were repeatedly told "the decision is final", and when asking for what messages specifically they were banned for, they were refused it. Is it not necessary to describe what was inappropriate?
I’ve inspected discrimination law, but the grounds does not seem to be under protected characteristics. So, is there any illegal action being taken here? Is it legal to target and carry out a restriction on random users like this, without supplying adequate reason?
The company is based in France, are there any overseeing regulatory bodies, or legislation that is in violation?
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