English Language & Usage Asked on May 11, 2021
These are sample sentences we usually come across:
- This is a husband‘s provision for his spouse.
- This is a wife‘s provision for her spouse.
One may find a similar sentence reading “A husband’s (or wife’s) provision for a spouse after separation or divorce” at http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/alimony
“Husband” and “wife” are gender-specific words, while “spouse” is a gender-neutral word. Logic says that when a gender-specific word “husband” or “wife” is used in a sentence, the opposite of that word in the sentence should also be gender-specific (and should not be a gender-neutral word). If so, then how could one use gender-specific and gender-neutral words together in the sentences like the ones cited above? Or, how could there be a sentence like the one cited at the link provided above?
To me, the correct sentences would be:
- This is a husband’s provision for his wife.
- This is a wife’s provision for her husband.
Or, one could perhaps also say:
- This is a spouse’s provision for the other spouse.
- This is a spouse’s provision for the other.
I admit that I may be wrong. Can someone shed some light?
With LGBT movement, a husband is no longer certain to be a "he". David Furnish was named as newborn Elijah's mother on the birth certificate, while Elton John was listed as his father, reported British media.
Grammatical gender in English is scarce, and as arbitrary as in any other language (could an aircraft or automobile really be a "she"?)
Regarding divorce, I believe the word "spouse" may be considered more suitable, as the persons would not intend to remain in the relationship, coming for divorce. The words "husband" and "wife" would be associated with a sustained relationship more. The word "spouse" would be used in the papers before divorce, according to the legal status.
Answered by Teresa Pelka on May 11, 2021
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