Economics Asked by T. G. on June 7, 2021
The budget constraint is
$c_t + tau_t + s_{t+1} =w_t(1-l_t) +(1+r_t)s_t$
And assume
$underset{t longrightarrow infty}{lim} displaystyle{frac{s_t}{Pi_{i=1}^{t-1} (1+r_i)}} = 0$
Lag Operator $L$ is defined as $L cdot x_{t+1} = x_t$
How can I get lifetime budget constraint using the Lag Operator?
Many Thanks!
@T. G.: I think I obtained the expression for $s_{t+1}$ as a function of the other variables. I don't know what lifetime budget really means so I'll write the answer here and hope it's useful.
$s_{t+1} = sum_{t=0}^{infty} lambda_{t} (w_{t}(1-l_{t}) -c_{t} - tau_{t})$
where $lambda_{t} = prod_{i=0}^{t-1} (1 + r_{t-i})$.
I'm not certain if it's correct but intuitively, it looks like exponential smoothing of some kind of expression each period, except that the smoothing constant is not constant and is a function of the past interest rates ??
Answered by mark leeds on June 7, 2021
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