Economics Asked by Ryan da Silva on September 2, 2021
Consider the following passage in Sonnenschein (1973; full citation below):
Perhaps because I do not know much about the uniform Lipschitz condition, I do not follow his exposition after the first two sentences of the proof. That is, do the definitions of $g_1^1$ and $g_1^2$ come from some standard result in mathematics? Any intuition here would be appreciated.
Furthermore, what is the source of $(g_1^1, I-pg_1^1)$ and $(g_2^1, I-pg_2^1)$?
Thank you.
Citation:
Sonnenschein, H. 1973. "Do Walras’ identity and Continuity Characterize
the Class of Community Excess Demand Functions?" Journal of Economic Theory 6: 345-354.
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